HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?
- A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
- B. Birth control pills.
- C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
- D. Cold medication containing alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.
2. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?
- A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
- B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
- C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.
3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Confusion and altered mental status
- B. Increased abdominal girth
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most concerning clinical findings in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. These symptoms indicate worsening liver function and potential neurological complications, requiring immediate medical attention. Increased abdominal girth may suggest ascites, yellowing of the skin can indicate jaundice, and peripheral edema may be related to fluid retention, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, confusion and altered mental status take precedence due to the risk of rapid deterioration and the need for prompt management.
4. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.
- B. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain a blood glucose level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl in a client who is unresponsive due to hyperglycemia. This intervention is crucial to rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels and address the emergency situation. Administering insulin (Choice B) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's condition. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice D) are important assessments but are secondary to the immediate need to address the high blood glucose levels causing the client's unresponsiveness.
5. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
- D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.
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