Nursing Elites

1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

2. A client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Prothrombin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine should be closely monitored in a client receiving methotrexate, as the medication can cause nephrotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps assess kidney function and detect potential nephrotoxic effects of methotrexate. Liver function tests (Choice A) are important to monitor for hepatotoxicity caused by methotrexate. While methotrexate can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, monitoring a complete blood count (Choice B) is essential but not the priority in this case. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is not typically affected by methotrexate therapy and is not the primary laboratory value to monitor in this situation.

3. During the initial visit to a client with MS who is bed-bound and lifted by a hoist, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present.
• B. Develop a client needs assessment and review it with the caregiver.
• C. Evaluate the caregiver's ability to care for the client's needs.
• D. Review with the caregiver the interventions provided each day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the initial visit, the most crucial intervention for the nurse is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being, especially during times when the caregiver is not available. Option B is not the most important as it focuses on assessment rather than immediate safety concerns. Option C, while important, is secondary to ensuring continuous care. Option D is less critical during the initial visit compared to ensuring care continuity in the caregiver's absence.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is an echocardiogram. This diagnostic test is crucial in assessing ventricular function and identifying the cause of shortness of breath in a client with heart failure. It provides valuable information about the heart's structure, function, and blood flow. While a chest X-ray may show signs of heart failure, it does not directly assess cardiac function like an echocardiogram does. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are useful to evaluate oxygenation and acid-base balance but do not provide information specific to heart function. An electrocardiogram (ECG) assesses the heart's electrical activity and rhythm, which is important but may not provide the detailed structural information needed in this scenario.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

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