Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
• B. Presence of a new murmur
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

2. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
• B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
• C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
• D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site
• B. Dry and cracked tracheostomy site
• C. Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube
• D. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mucous plugging of the tracheostomy tube is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a tracheostomy. It can lead to airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Crepitus around the tracheostomy site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema but is not as urgent as a blocked airway. A dry and cracked tracheostomy site may indicate poor skin integrity but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway. Yellowing of the skin around the tracheostomy site could suggest a localized infection, but it is not as critical as a potential airway obstruction caused by mucous plugging.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dl
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can be exacerbated during hemodialysis, making it crucial to closely monitor serum potassium levels before the procedure. Monitoring serum creatinine, serum calcium, or hemoglobin levels is important in managing ESRD but is not the immediate focus before hemodialysis. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.

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