an older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker over time what is the best initial response by the nurse
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker over time. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse should be to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This open-ended question allows the nurse to gather valuable information directly from the client, aiding in assessing the situation accurately and formulating an appropriate care plan. Choice A is incorrect as assuming muscle weakness is an expected occurrence with aging without further assessment may overlook potential underlying issues. Choice B is premature as it jumps straight to physical examination without first gathering subjective data. Choice C is unnecessary at this point as reviewing diagnostic test results should come after initial assessment and data collection from the client.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.

3. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

Similar Questions

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?
While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?
After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses