HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?
- A. Maintain adequate cardiac output.
- B. Promote adequate tissue perfusion.
- C. Promote rest and sleep.
- D. Reduce the risk for injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Elevated liver enzymes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.
3. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client?
- A. Palpitations and shortness of breath
- B. Bradycardia and constipation
- C. Lethargy and lack of appetite
- D. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating, and diarrhea. Palpitations and shortness of breath are signs of excessive thyroid medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect symptoms for a dosage that is too high. Bradycardia and constipation, lethargy and lack of appetite, muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin are more indicative of hypothyroidism or an insufficient dosage of levothyroxine.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Obtain a sputum culture.
- D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, the priority intervention should be to administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. This is crucial to improve oxygenation, especially in a client with compromised respiratory function. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture and administering antibiotics are important steps in the treatment of pneumonia but come after ensuring adequate oxygen supply.
5. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse a client's readiness for pulmonary function tests?
- A. Expresses an understanding of the procedure.
- B. NPO for 6 hrs.
- C. No known drug allergies.
- D. Intravenous access intact.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expresses an understanding of the procedure.' This choice indicates that the client is mentally prepared for the pulmonary function tests, as understanding the procedure shows readiness and cooperation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'NPO for 6 hrs,' pertains to fasting status and is not directly related to readiness for the test. Choice C, 'No known drug allergies,' is important information but does not specifically indicate readiness for pulmonary function tests. Choice D, 'Intravenous access intact,' is related to vascular access and not a direct indicator of readiness for the pulmonary function tests.
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