Nursing Elites

1. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?

• A. Maintain adequate cardiac output.
• B. Promote adequate tissue perfusion.
• C. Promote rest and sleep.
• D. Reduce the risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia and is receiving IV antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Client reports less chest pain.
• B. Client's white blood cell count is decreasing.
• C. Client has a decreased respiratory rate.
• D. Client has clear breath sounds.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clear breath sounds indicate that the pneumonia is resolving and the treatment is effective. Breath sounds are often muffled or crackling in pneumonia due to the presence of fluid or inflammation in the lungs. Clear breath sounds suggest that the air is moving freely through the lungs, indicating improvement. Choices A, B, and C are less specific indicators of pneumonia resolution. While less chest pain and a decreasing white blood cell count can be positive signs, they are not as direct in indicating the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment as the presence of clear breath sounds. A decreased respiratory rate could be seen in various conditions and may not solely indicate the resolution of pneumonia.

3. During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem?

• A. Infection
• B. Hypoxia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Bronchospasm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Improper suctioning techniques can introduce pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Choice B, Hypoxia, is incorrect as it is more related to inadequate oxygen supply. Choice C, Bleeding, is not typically associated with suctioning a tracheostomy unless done too aggressively. Choice D, Bronchospasm, is not directly linked to suctioning but may occur due to other triggers in patients with sensitive airways.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis and severe ascites has a serum sodium level of 115 mEq/L and is receiving 3% saline IV. Which assessment finding indicates that the nurse should notify the healthcare provider?

• A. The client's serum sodium level is now 130 mEq/L
• B. The client reports a headache and has a BP of 140/90
• C. The client reports shortness of breath and has an O2 saturation of 92%
• D. The client has crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of crackles in both lung bases and an increased respiratory rate indicates fluid overload, which can be exacerbated by hypertonic saline. This condition can worsen the client's respiratory status and lead to further complications. The other options do not directly relate to the fluid overload caused by the hypertonic saline. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L is within a normal range for treatment. A headache and a blood pressure of 140/90 are not specific indicators of worsening condition related to hypertonic saline. Shortness of breath and an O2 saturation of 92% could be related to other factors in a client with liver cirrhosis and ascites.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in patients with CKD because contrast agents can potentially worsen kidney function and lead to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps assess kidney function and determine the risk of complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another marker of kidney function, but serum creatinine is a more specific indicator. Serum potassium levels are important in assessing electrolyte balance but are not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Serum glucose levels are not typically a primary concern before a CT scan with contrast in a patient with CKD.

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