Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Administer IV fluids.
• C. Prepare for possible blood transfusion.
• D. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.

3. The nurse is assessing the thorax and lungs of a client who is experiencing respiratory difficulty. Which finding is most indicative of respiratory distress?

• A. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
• C. Downward movement of diaphragm with inspiration
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Contractions of the sternocleidomastoid muscle suggest that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe, which is a clear sign of respiratory distress. This finding indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, typically seen in conditions like asthma, COPD, or respiratory failure. Choices B, C, and D are not the most indicative of respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min falls within the normal range. Downward movement of the diaphragm with inspiration is a normal finding indicating effective diaphragmatic breathing. A pulse oximetry reading of SpO2 95% is within the normal range and does not necessarily indicate respiratory distress.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism who has not been responsive to medications is admitted for evaluation. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Review the client's medication history.
• C. Prepare the client for thyroid function tests.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a client with hyperthyroidism is not responding to medications, the nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider. This is important because the client may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting the treatment plan or exploring alternative therapies. Reviewing the client's medication history (choice B) may be relevant but not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider. While preparing the client for thyroid function tests (choice C) may be necessary as part of the evaluation process, it is not the most immediate action to take. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not directly related to the non-responsiveness of medications in hyperthyroidism and is not a priority in this situation.

5. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

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