Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypernatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hyperphosphatemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.

2. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
• B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
• C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
• D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.

3. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?

• A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
• B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
• C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
• D. Does the client take digitalis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
• C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
• D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.

5. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
• B. Use intermittent catheterization.
• C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
• D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.

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