an 81 year old male client has emphysema he lives at home with his cat and manages self care with no difficulty when making a home visit the nurse not
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that this client's tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs appear sunken into his head. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's cracked tongue and sunken eyes indicate dehydration. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's emphysema symptoms and lead to further complications. Monitoring and addressing the client's fluid intake is crucial for maintaining his health and well-being. Options B, C, and D are not the immediate priorities in this situation. While an eye examination, oxygen use, and sensitivity tests are relevant aspects of care, addressing dehydration through increased fluid intake takes precedence in this scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

3. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

4. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

5. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for immediate relief of angina symptoms. Nitroglycerin is a fast-acting medication that helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Therefore, prompt administration at the onset of chest pain is essential to alleviate anginal episodes effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication properly, taking it as directed, or before meals are not specific instructions for managing acute anginal episodes, which require immediate action for symptom relief.

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