Nursing Elites

1. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:

• A. Improvement in the client
• B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
• C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
• D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.

2. A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
• B. Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
• C. Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
• D. If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.

3. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:

• A. Calls the physician
• B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
• D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct

• A. dose.
• B. drug.
• C. frequency.
• D. route.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.

5. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

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