Nursing Elites

1. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:

• A. True.
• B. False.
• C. Depends on the person.
• D. Not enough information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.

2. Mrs. Banda is a patient at the ward with complaints of light menstrual periods, which occur at intervals greater than 35 days. Your diagnosis will be:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Menorrhagia
• C. Metrorrhagia
• D. Polymenorrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis for Mrs. Banda's condition is Oligomenorrhea. Oligomenorrhea is characterized by light menstrual periods occurring at intervals longer than 35 days. Choice B, Menorrhagia, refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding. Choice C, Metrorrhagia, is bleeding at irregular intervals, and Choice D, Polymenorrhea, involves menstrual cycles occurring at intervals shorter than 21 days.

3. Septic abortion is characterized by:

• A. Backache.
• B. Os open.
• C. Heavy bleeding.
• D. Maternal pyrexia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Septic abortion is characterized by maternal pyrexia. Maternal pyrexia, or fever, is a hallmark sign of septic abortion due to infection. Backache and heavy bleeding can be present in abortion but are not specific to septic abortion. 'Os open' does not directly characterize septic abortion.

4. Which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males?

• A. Vasectomy
• B. Tubal ligation
• C. Condoms
• D. Coitus interruptus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasectomy. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for permanent contraception in males by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. Choice B, Tubal ligation, is a method for permanent contraception in females by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Condoms, provide a barrier method of contraception but are not permanent. Choice D, Coitus interruptus, involves withdrawing the penis before ejaculation and is not a reliable method of contraception.

5. Abortion is defined as:

• A. Bleeding per vaginum in early pregnancy
• B. Willingness to terminate pregnancy
• C. Expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation
• D. Expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abortion is defined as the expulsion of products of conception before the 28th week of gestation. Choice A is incorrect as it describes bleeding in early pregnancy, not the definition of abortion. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to the willingness to terminate a pregnancy rather than the actual act of expulsion. Choice C is incorrect as it defines abortion as the expulsion of products of conception after the 28th week of gestation, which is considered a stillbirth.

Similar Questions