which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasectomy. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for permanent contraception in males by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. Choice B, Tubal ligation, is a method for permanent contraception in females by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Condoms, provide a barrier method of contraception but are not permanent. Choice D, Coitus interruptus, involves withdrawing the penis before ejaculation and is not a reliable method of contraception.

2. At what age are women likely to enter menopause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Women generally enter menopause between the ages of 45 - 50 years. During this stage, women experience a decline in estrogen production, leading to the cessation of menstrual cycles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not fall within the typical age range for menopause onset. Menopause typically occurs later in life, around the age of 45 to 50 years, although individual variations exist.

3. Culdoscopy is a procedure performed to examine the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Culdoscopy is a procedure that involves examining the rectouterine pouch and pelvic viscera through the posterior vaginal wall. This approach allows direct visualization and access to the pelvic area. The other choices are incorrect because culdoscopy specifically involves entering through the posterior vaginal wall to reach the specified anatomical structures. The anterior vaginal wall, abdominal wall, and rectal wall are not the access points used in culdoscopy.

4. What is amniocentesis used to detect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to detect certain genetic disorders in a developing fetus. It involves collecting a small sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus and analyzing the genetic material present in the cells. This test is not used to detect sexually transmitted diseases, causes of infertility, or the presence of pneumonia germs. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

5. Which one of the following is not associated with poor maternal outcome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cord prolapse is not typically associated with poor maternal outcomes. Acute placental hemorrhage (APH - choice A) and postpartum hemorrhage (PPH - choice B) can lead to maternal morbidity and mortality due to excessive blood loss. Pre-eclampsia (choice D) is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, which can result in severe maternal complications if not managed promptly. Cord prolapse, though concerning for fetal well-being, does not inherently pose direct risks to maternal health if managed appropriately, making it the correct answer in this context.

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