HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. Which of the following is a function of the placenta?
- A. The placenta secretes insulin.
- B. The placenta facilitates the exchange of gases and nutrients between mother and fetus.
- C. The placenta provides immunological protection to the fetus.
- D. The placenta stores fat-soluble vitamins for the fetus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The placenta serves as a crucial organ during pregnancy, facilitating the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and nutrients (such as glucose and amino acids) between the mother and the developing fetus. This exchange is vital for the fetus's growth and development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The placenta does not secrete insulin; insulin is produced by the pancreas. While the placenta provides some immune support to the fetus, its main role is not immunological protection. Additionally, storing fat-soluble vitamins is not a primary function of the placenta.
2. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
- B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
- C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.
3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.
4. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?
- A. At bedtime
- B. After lunch
- C. With supper
- D. Before breakfast
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Yellowing of the skin
- D. Increased abdominal girth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with cirrhosis presenting with jaundice and ascites, yellowing of the skin (icterus) is the most concerning assessment finding. This indicates significant liver dysfunction and a high level of bilirubin in the blood. Yellowing of the skin suggests a severe impairment of the liver's ability to process bilirubin, which can lead to serious complications. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are common manifestations of cirrhosis but are not as acutely concerning as skin yellowing. Confusion and altered mental status are also critical findings in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but skin yellowing is more closely associated with the severity of liver dysfunction in this scenario.