HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. During an ectopic pregnancy, what is the likelihood of a rupture in the ampullary portion of the tube?
- A. Frequent
- B. Uncommon
- C. Occasional
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an ectopic pregnancy, a rupture in the ampullary portion of the tube is frequent. This is due to the increased pressure within the fallopian tube as the embryo grows, leading to the rupture of the tube. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the common occurrence of rupture in this specific part of the tube during an ectopic pregnancy.
2. What are the Carunculae Myrtiformes?
- A. Tissues between the vagina and the perineum
- B. A component of the clitoral prepuce
- C. The remnants of the torn hymen
- D. Structures that partially close the vaginal introitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Carunculae Myrtiformes are the remnants of the torn hymen. They are not tissues between the vagina and the perineum (Choice A), a part of the clitoral prepuce (Choice B), or structures that partially close the vaginal introitus (Choice D). Understanding the anatomy of the female reproductive system is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate care and information.
3. Causes of metrorrhagia include:
- A. Cervical carcinoma
- B. Uterine polyp
- C. Cervical endometriosis
- D. Infections like Chlamydia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.
4. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?
- A. Gynaecoid pelvis has a wedge-shaped inlet
- B. Platypelloid pelvis has an oval inlet
- C. Anthropoid pelvis has a long narrow oval inlet
- D. Android pelvis is wedge-shaped
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.
5. A woman is considered to be in menopause if she has experienced the cessation of her menses for a period of:
- A. 6 months
- B. 12 months
- C. 18 months
- D. 24 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Menopause is defined as the cessation of menses for 12 months. This period is significant because it indicates the end of a woman's reproductive years. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the established criteria for defining menopause.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access