HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
2. The nurse needs to add a medication to a liter of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) that is already infusing into a client. At what location should the nurse inject the medication?
- A. Medication port
- B. IV drip chamber
- C. Y-site connector
- D. At the hub of the IV catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the medication port. When adding medication to an already infusing IV solution, it should be done through the medication port to ensure direct delivery into the bloodstream without interrupting the primary IV line. Injecting the medication into the IV drip chamber, Y-site connector, or at the hub of the IV catheter can lead to dilution, inaccurate dosing, or potential blockages in the IV line, which can compromise the effectiveness of the medication and patient safety.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
- B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.
4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is an echocardiogram. This diagnostic test is crucial in assessing ventricular function and identifying the cause of shortness of breath in a client with heart failure. It provides valuable information about the heart's structure, function, and blood flow. While a chest X-ray may show signs of heart failure, it does not directly assess cardiac function like an echocardiogram does. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are useful to evaluate oxygenation and acid-base balance but do not provide information specific to heart function. An electrocardiogram (ECG) assesses the heart's electrical activity and rhythm, which is important but may not provide the detailed structural information needed in this scenario.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?
- A. Dorsogluteal site
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Deltoid site
- D. Vastus lateralis site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis site is the most appropriate for an IM injection in a client with muscle wasting in the gluteal region. Administering the injection in the vastus lateralis ensures effective medication delivery due to muscle wasting in the gluteal region, preventing potential complications associated with the dorsogluteal or ventrogluteal sites, which may not be suitable in this specific client case. The deltoid site is mainly used for smaller volumes of medication and may not be ideal for this scenario.
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