Nursing Elites

1. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

2. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus
• B. Administer an antiemetic intravenously
• C. Insert a nasogastric tube
• D. Prepare the client for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

3. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs?

• A. Woman, Infants, and Children program
• B. Medicaid
• C. Medicare
• D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Medicare. Title XVII of the Social Security Act of 1965 created the Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for individuals who are 65 years or older, disabled, or have permanent kidney failure. Medicare is the appropriate agency to refer a 66-year-old woman who is retiring and losing her employment-based health insurance. Choice A, the Woman, Infants, and Children program, is not suitable for this scenario as it provides assistance for low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and young children. Choice B, Medicaid, is a program that helps individuals with low income and resources cover medical costs, which may not be applicable to this woman's situation. Choice D, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision, known as COBRA, allows employees to continue their group health insurance coverage after leaving their job but may not be the best option for this woman in this case.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

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