Nursing Elites

1. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?

• A. Malignancy
• B. Infection
• C. Benign cyst
• D. Lymphadenitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with COPD as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, patients often retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level suggests that the body is compensating for this respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate levels to maintain balance. Therefore, a low serum bicarbonate level in this scenario is alarming. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not directly related to the acid-base imbalance seen in COPD.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

4. When planning care for a 10-year-old child with pneumonia receiving oxygen at 5l/min per nasal cannula, what principle of oxygen administration should the nurse consider?

• A. Avoid administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Increase oxygen flow rate if the child is still tachypneic.
• C. Reduce oxygen levels gradually after symptoms improve.
• D. Humidify the oxygen to prevent drying of mucous membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle of oxygen administration to consider is to avoid administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods. High levels of oxygen for prolonged periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, especially in pediatric patients. Increasing the oxygen flow rate based on tachypnea may not be necessary and can potentially lead to oxygen toxicity. Gradually reducing oxygen levels after symptoms improve may compromise the child's oxygenation. While humidifying oxygen is important to prevent drying of mucous membranes, the primary concern in this case is to avoid high oxygen levels for an extended duration to prevent oxygen toxicity.

5. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fever of 100.4°F
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fever of 100.4°F is a clinical finding that requires immediate intervention in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis. Fever may indicate an underlying infection, which can be severe in individuals with compromised renal function. Prompt assessment and treatment are essential to prevent worsening of the infection and potential complications. Heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are also important parameters to monitor in clients with ESRD, but in this scenario, the fever takes precedence due to its potential to indicate a critical condition that requires urgent attention.

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