HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. An adult client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, non-tender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The findings of a large, non-tender, hardened lymph node, especially in the absence of overlying tissue inflammation, are indicative of malignancy. These characteristics raise suspicion for cancer, prompting the need for further investigation. Choice B, Infection, is incorrect because infection would typically present as a tender and possibly swollen lymph node. Choice C, Benign cyst, is incorrect as cysts are usually soft and movable. Choice D, Lymphadenitis, is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes in response to an infection.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level
- D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.
3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum calcium level of 9 mg/dl
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl
- D. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dl. In a client with ESRD receiving hemodialysis, serum creatinine should be closely monitored. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A), serum potassium levels (Choice B), and serum sodium levels (Choice D) is also important in clients with ESRD, but the most crucial indicator of kidney function in this case is serum creatinine.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is crucial in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This assessment helps determine if the current oxygen therapy is effective or if adjustments are necessary. While administering a bronchodilator is important in managing COPD, assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate oxygen needs. Assessing the respiratory rate is also important but evaluating oxygen saturation provides more direct information about the client's oxygen status. Elevating the head of the bed can improve ventilation but is not the priority when assessing oxygen saturation in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen.
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