HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Weak palpable distal pulses
- B. Pain at the fracture site
- C. Mild swelling of the leg
- D. Bruising around the fracture site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.
2. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
- C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
- D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.
3. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?
- A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
- B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
- C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
- D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.
4. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
- B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
- C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
- D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.
5. When asking an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a 69-year-old surgical client to ambulate for the first time, which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Have the client sit on the side of the bed for at least 2 minutes before helping him stand.
- B. If the client is dizzy on standing, ask him to take some deep breaths.
- C. Assist the client to the bathroom at least twice on this shift.
- D. After you assist him to the chair, let me know how he feels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Allowing the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing helps prevent dizziness and falls, especially during their first ambulation post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client to take deep breaths when feeling dizzy may not address the underlying cause of the dizziness. Choice C is incorrect as it is unrelated to the task of assisting the client to ambulate for the first time. Choice D is incorrect because knowing how the client feels after sitting in the chair does not address the important step of assisting the client to stand up for the first time.