Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

• A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
• B. Observe for edema around the ankles
• C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level
• D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most crucial intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are the primary issues in DKA. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as administering insulin. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the underlying cause of DKA. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not as urgent as administering insulin to address the immediate metabolic imbalance.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

4. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
• B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
• D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.

Similar Questions