Nursing Elites

1. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can be maintained regardless of weight.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.

2. The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should be provided to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?

• A. Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the inhaler.
• B. Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth.
• C. Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose.
• D. Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler involves compressing the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This method helps ensure that the medication reaches deep into the lungs, allowing for optimal bronchodilation effect. Inhaling quickly through the nose or filling the lungs with air before compressing the inhaler are not recommended techniques for using a metered-dose inhaler effectively.

3. To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
• C. Two inches below the acromion process
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.

4. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports a change in bowel habits, the first step for the nurse is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern by reviewing the medical records. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's baseline, which is crucial before initiating any interventions. By determining the client's usual bowel habits, the nurse can identify deviations from the norm and make informed decisions on the appropriate course of action. Assessing the client's medical record is a critical first step in addressing the client's bowel concerns. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they jump to interventions without first establishing the client's normal bowel pattern. Offering warm prune juice, requesting a large-volume enema, or increasing fluids may not be appropriate until the nurse knows the client's regular bowel habits and can assess the situation effectively.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should record the amount on the client's fluid output record because the 350 mL of pale yellow urine is a normal finding. This indicates appropriate urine output, so encouraging increased fluid intake or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this time. Additionally, palpating the client's bladder for distention is not indicated based on the normal urine output observed.

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