Nursing Elites

1. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should record the amount on the client's fluid output record because the 350 mL of pale yellow urine is a normal finding. This indicates appropriate urine output, so encouraging increased fluid intake or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this time. Additionally, palpating the client's bladder for distention is not indicated based on the normal urine output observed.

2. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?

• A. Check for a blood return.
• B. Reposition the client's arm.
• C. Remove the IV site dressing.
• D. Flush the lock with saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.

3. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

4. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?

• A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
• B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
• C. Turn the head to the right and left
• D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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