Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. Upon admission, a female client with breast cancer, liver, and spine metastases presents with constant, severe pain despite the continuous use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) at home for pain management. What information is most crucial for the nurse to gather during the admission assessment?

• A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain.
• B. Identification of trigger points through palpation and manual pressure on painful areas.
• C. Current schedule and total dosages of medications used for breakthrough pain.
• D. Assessment of sympathetic responses indicative of acute pain onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the admission assessment of a client with severe pain due to breast cancer metastasis to the liver and spine is the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain. Understanding these details is essential to tailor appropriate pain management therapy effectively. By assessing the sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of pain, the nurse can better determine the underlying cause and choose the most suitable interventions to address the client's pain and improve their quality of life. Trigger points, medication dosages, and sympathetic responses are also important aspects of pain assessment but understanding the sensory aspects of pain is fundamental for providing optimal care in this scenario.

3. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

4. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Headache
• B. Dizziness
• C. Fatigue
• D. Edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

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