Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. The client is 5 feet from the bathroom door when he states, 'I feel faint.' Before the nurse can get the client to a chair, the client starts to fall. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Check the client's carotid pulse.
• B. Encourage the client to get to the toilet.
• C. In a loud voice, call for help.
• D. Gently lower the client to the floor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to gently lower the client to the floor. This action helps prevent injury to both the client and the nurse. It is important to ensure a safe environment and protect the client from falling, as well as to maintain the nurse's own safety while providing care.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

4. What action should the nurse implement to prepare a client for the potential side effects of a newly prescribed medication?

• A. Assess the client for health alterations that may be impacted by the effects of the medication
• B. Teach the client how to administer the medication to promote the best absorption
• C. Administer a half dose and observe the client for side effects before administering a full dosage
• D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to promote effective drug distribution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating a new medication, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client to identify any pre-existing health conditions or risk factors that could be affected by the medication. This assessment helps in establishing a baseline for monitoring potential side effects and determining the medication's appropriateness for the client. Choice B is incorrect as teaching the client how to administer the medication does not directly address preparing for potential side effects. Choice C is incorrect because administering a half dose without a proper assessment could be unsafe. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is not directly related to preparing for potential side effects of a medication.

5. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?

• A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
• B. Document the statement in the client’s spiritual assessment
• C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
• D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.

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