Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?

• A. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolyte levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.

3. The client, who is newly diagnosed with arteriosclerosis and is obese, is being educated by the nurse on reducing the risk of a heart attack or stroke. Which health promotion brochure should the nurse provide to this client?

• A. Monitoring Your Blood Pressure at Home
• B. Smoking Cessation as a Lifelong Commitment
• C. Decreasing Cholesterol Levels Through Diet
• D. Stress Management for a Healthier You

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most significant risk factor contributing to arteriosclerosis is excess dietary fat, particularly saturated fat and cholesterol. Therefore, the most crucial brochure for the nurse to provide to the client focuses on decreasing cholesterol levels through diet to help reduce the risk of heart attack or stroke.

4. An older female client with rheumatoid arthritis is complaining of severe joint pain that is caused by the weight of the linen on her legs. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Apply flannel pajamas to provide warmth.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of ibuprofen.
• C. Perform range of motion exercises in a warm tub.
• D. Drape the sheets over the footboard of the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should first address the immediate comfort concern of the client, which is the weight of the linen on her legs causing severe joint pain. By draping the sheets over the footboard of the bed rather than tucking them under the mattress, the nurse can alleviate the pressure that the client perceives as the source of her pain. This action is a simple and effective way to provide relief and should be the initial step taken by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the client's immediate discomfort caused by the weight of the linen on her legs, making them less appropriate initial actions.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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