HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the healthcare professional include in this procedure?
- A. Dilute each of the medications with sterile water prior to administration.
- B. Mix the medications in one syringe before opening the feeding tube.
- C. Administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications.
- D. Withdraw any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To maintain patency and ensure proper medication delivery, water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications. This helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that both medications are delivered effectively without interference from remnants of the previous medication. Diluting the medications with sterile water before administration (choice A) is unnecessary and may alter the medication concentration. Mixing the medications in one syringe (choice B) could lead to interactions or chemical reactions between the medications. Withdrawing fluid from the tube before instilling each medication (choice D) is not required and may increase the risk of tube displacement or misplacement.
4. The client with cholecystitis is being instructed on dietary choices. Which meal best meets the dietary needs of this client?
- A. Steak, baked beans, and a salad
- B. Broiled fish, green beans, and an apple
- C. Pork chops, macaroni and cheese, and grapes
- D. Avocado salad, milk, and angel food cake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cholecystitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the gallbladder. The meal of broiled fish, green beans, and an apple aligns with this dietary recommendation by providing lean protein and low-fat, high-fiber foods that are easier for the body to digest, making it the most suitable choice for a client with cholecystitis.
5. A female client’s significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client’s estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges
- B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
- C. Encourage the client to speak with her husband regarding his disruptive behavior
- D. Communicate the client’s wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client's estranged husband demands to restrict the visitation of the significant other, it is essential to prioritize the client's wishes while addressing the conflict. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee is appropriate as it allows for a comprehensive and impartial resolution, ensuring the client's autonomy and well-being are upheld. Option A is incorrect because visitation privileges are not solely determined by a healthcare provider's prescription in this scenario. Option C may not be appropriate as it puts the client in a potentially uncomfortable or unsafe position. Option D, while important, does not directly address the conflict between the estranged husband and the significant other.
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