HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg รท 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
2. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.
3. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
4. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?
- A. Is voiding normally.
- B. Has urinary retention.
- C. Has developed renal failure.
- D. Needs an indwelling catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.
5. A high school senior is complaining of a persistent cough and admits to smoking 10 to 15 cigarettes daily for the past year. He is convinced that he is hopelessly addicted to tobacco since he tried unsuccessfully to quit smoking last week. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the student to associate with non-smokers only while attempting to stop smoking.
- B. Tell the student that he is still young and should continue trying various smoking cessation methods.
- C. Describe cigarette smoking as a habit that requires a strong will to overcome its addictiveness.
- D. Provide the student with the latest research data describing the long-term effects of tobacco use.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Adolescents are particularly influenced by peers, so associating with non-smokers may help the student quit smoking. By being surrounded by non-smokers, the student is less likely to feel pressured to smoke and may be encouraged to adopt healthier behaviors. This intervention leverages the power of social influence to support smoking cessation efforts and create a more conducive environment for the student to quit smoking. Choices B, C, and D do not address the social aspect of smoking behavior and the influence of peers on smoking habits, making them less effective interventions in this case.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access