HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Basal body temperature rise of _____ is seen in the luteal phase due to the thermogenic effects of a metabolite of progesterone in a normal cycle:
- A. 0.1-0.5
- B. 0.2-0.5
- C. 1.0-2.0
- D. 1.5-2.0
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A basal body temperature rise of 0.2-0.5 degrees Celsius is typically seen in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle due to the thermogenic effects of a metabolite of progesterone. This temperature rise helps to indicate ovulation has occurred. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the usual range of temperature increase observed during the luteal phase. A rise of 0.1-0.5 degrees Celsius is too narrow (eliminating choice A), while ranges of 1.0-2.0 and 1.5-2.0 degrees Celsius are too high and not consistent with the expected basal body temperature changes during the menstrual cycle.
2. What is one role of the hormone estrogen?
- A. Stimulates the development of the milk-producing tissue.
- B. Stimulates the production of lactoferrin.
- C. Stimulates the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
- D. Stimulates the secretion of relaxin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Estrogen stimulates the development of the milk-producing tissue in the breast. This hormone is essential in preparing the breast for milk production. Choice B is incorrect because lactoferrin production is not a primary role of estrogen. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen primarily influences the development of the breast tissue rather than specifically the nipple and duct system. Choice D is incorrect because relaxin secretion is not a function typically associated with estrogen.
3. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?
- A. LH
- B. Androgens
- C. Estrogens
- D. Prolactin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.
4. Which animal is an ovoviviparous animal?
- A. Basking shark
- B. Bonobo
- C. Blue shark
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the Blue shark. Ovoviviparous animals produce eggs that develop inside the body of the parent, and the offspring are born alive. The basking shark does not fall under this category as it is ovoviviparous, meaning it lays eggs that hatch inside the female's body. The bonobo is a separate species and not relevant to the question.
5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?
- A. Threatened
- B. Imminent
- C. Missed
- D. Incomplete
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.
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