Nursing Elites

1. An older client with long-term type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessment would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is experiencing long-term complications?

• A. Signs of respiratory tract infection
• B. Sensation in feet and legs
• C. Skin condition of lower extremities
• D. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing sensation in the feet and legs is crucial for detecting diabetic neuropathy, a common long-term complication of diabetes. While signs of respiratory tract infection, skin condition of lower extremities, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels are important assessments in diabetic care, they are not specific for detecting long-term complications like neuropathy.

2. An older adult client with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough. The client is anxious and complaining of a dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client to an upright position
• B. Administer a prescribed sedative
• C. Apply a high-flow Venturi mask
• D. Encourage the client to drink water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. An upright position helps optimize lung expansion and aids in improving ventilation, which can alleviate shortness of breath. This position also assists in reducing anxiety by providing a sense of control and comfort. Administering a sedative (Choice B) may further depress the respiratory drive in a client with COPD and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Applying a high-flow Venturi mask (Choice C) may be indicated later based on oxygenation needs, but the immediate focus should be on positioning. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice D) may not directly address the respiratory distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

3. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
• C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.

4. What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?

• A. Atherosclerosis.
• B. Hyperlipidemia.
• C. Diabetes.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atherosclerosis. It is the primary cause of coronary artery disease, as it involves the buildup of plaque in the arteries, restricting blood flow to the heart. Hyperlipidemia (choice B) contributes to atherosclerosis by increasing cholesterol levels in the blood but is not the direct cause of coronary artery disease. Diabetes (choice C) can accelerate atherosclerosis due to high blood sugar levels, but it is not the most common cause. Smoking (choice D) is a significant risk factor for developing coronary artery disease but is not the primary cause.

5. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

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