HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PCO2 31 mm Hg, PO2 94 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ABG results show a pH above the normal range (7.35-7.45) and a decreased PCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) would present with a low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) would show an increased pH and HCO3 levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) would have a low pH and an increased PCO2.
2. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Select a different injection site
- B. Continue with the insulin injection
- C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
- D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.
3. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Hypoalbuminemia
- C. Lipiduria
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.
5. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?
- A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
- B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
- C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
- D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.
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