HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
- A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
- B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
- C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
- D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
2. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?
- A. To lower blood pressure.
- B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
- C. To increase blood glucose levels.
- D. To decrease blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
3. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?
- A. Elevated creatinine levels.
- B. Low potassium levels.
- C. Low calcium levels.
- D. High sodium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.
4. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
- B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
- C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.
5. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?
- A. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery – Habit training
- B. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy – Electrical stimulation
- C. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer’s-type senile dementia – Bladder training
- D. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating – Exercise therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pairing is a 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy with electrical stimulation. Electrical stimulation is used for clients with stress incontinence related to menopause and low estrogen levels. Exercise therapy improves pelvic wall strength and is not specifically for ambulation issues. Habit training is more effective for cognitively impaired clients, like those with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia. Bladder training requires the client to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate, which may not be suitable for clients with cognitive impairments.
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