Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?

• A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
• B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
• C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
• D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.

2. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
• C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.

4. The nurse is evaluating the laboratory reports of a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse would expect which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Increased TSH
• B. Increased thyroxine (T4)
• C. Decreased TSH
• D. Decreased T3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low levels of thyroid hormones. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, increased TSH levels are expected in hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because in hypothyroidism, thyroxine (T4) levels are usually decreased, not increased. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH levels, not decreased. Choice D is also incorrect because in hypothyroidism, T3 levels may be decreased, but TSH is a more sensitive indicator for diagnosis.

5. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
• B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

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