Nursing Elites

1. A client reports that the skin around the edges of a wound is red and swollen. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for signs of infection
• B. Reinforce the wound dressing
• C. Contact the healthcare provider
• D. Apply a warm compress to the wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. Redness and swelling around a wound are indicative of a potential infection. The priority intervention for the nurse is to closely monitor the wound for further signs of infection, such as increased drainage or fever. Reinforcing the wound dressing may be necessary, but it is not the priority when infection is suspected. Contacting the healthcare provider is important, but the nurse should first assess and monitor the wound to provide comprehensive information when contacting the provider. Applying a warm compress can potentially worsen the infection by promoting bacterial growth, so it is contraindicated in this situation.

2. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
• C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
• D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

3. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
• B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.

4. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

• A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
• B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
• C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
• D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.

5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
• C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
• D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.

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