HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client presents with severe dehydration due to prolonged vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to drink clear fluids.
- B. Assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs frequently.
- D. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes. When a client presents with severe dehydration, assessing skin turgor (elasticity of the skin) and mucous membranes (such as checking for dryness in the mouth) is crucial in determining the extent of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink clear fluids (Choice A) may be important but assessing dehydration severity takes precedence. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential but assessing dehydration status comes first. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) addresses vomiting but does not directly assess dehydration.
2. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess for signs of infection.
- B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
- C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
- D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.
3. During an acute exacerbation of asthma, what is the nurse's first action for a client experiencing this condition?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
- C. Reassure the client and encourage deep breathing.
- D. Provide emotional support to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action when managing an acute exacerbation of asthma is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve breathing in individuals experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Reassuring the client and encouraging deep breathing (Choice C) can be beneficial but should come after administering the bronchodilator. Providing emotional support to reduce anxiety (Choice D) is important but is not the initial priority in managing an acute exacerbation of asthma.
4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
- B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
- B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
- D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.
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