HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client presents with severe dehydration due to prolonged vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to drink clear fluids.
- B. Assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs frequently.
- D. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's skin turgor and mucous membranes. When a client presents with severe dehydration, assessing skin turgor (elasticity of the skin) and mucous membranes (such as checking for dryness in the mouth) is crucial in determining the extent of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink clear fluids (Choice A) may be important but assessing dehydration severity takes precedence. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential but assessing dehydration status comes first. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) addresses vomiting but does not directly assess dehydration.
2. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
- B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
- D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.
3. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
4. The nurse is teaching a group of clients about managing diabetes. Which of the following should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics?
- A. Frequent exercise and weight control
- B. Prevent eye damage
- C. Keep insulin refrigerated at all times
- D. Prevent the development of complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frequent exercise and weight control. These should be emphasized as a goal for all diabetics because they help prevent complications and manage blood sugar levels. Regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial in managing diabetes as they can improve insulin sensitivity, regulate blood sugar levels, and reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choice B, preventing eye damage, is important but is more specific to diabetic retinopathy and not a general goal for all diabetics. Choice C, keeping insulin refrigerated, is essential for insulin storage but not a primary goal for all diabetics. Choice D, preventing the development of complications, is too broad and does not provide a specific actionable goal for all diabetics.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?
- A. Elevated troponin levels
- B. Increased white blood cell count
- C. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
- D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access