Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
• C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

2. When assessing an IV site used for fluid replacement and medication administration, the client complains of tenderness when the arm is touched above the site. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Cool skin at the IV insertion site
• B. Presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter
• C. Swelling above the IV site
• D. Red streaks tracking the vein

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Red streaks tracking the vein." Red streaks indicate phlebitis, an inflammation of the vein that can lead to serious complications like infection or thrombophlebitis. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further damage. Choice A, cool skin at the IV insertion site, could indicate decreased circulation but is not as urgent as addressing phlebitis. Choice B, presence of fluid leaking around the IV catheter, may indicate infiltration or dislodgement of the catheter, requiring intervention but not as urgently as phlebitis. Choice C, swelling above the IV site, may suggest localized inflammation but doesn't pose an immediate threat like phlebitis does.

3. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

4. A client is admitted to isolation with active tuberculosis. What infection control measures should the nurse implement?

• A. Initiate protective environment precautions.
• B. Use droplet precautions only.
• C. Ensure a positive pressure environment in the room.
• D. Implement negative pressure and contact precautions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with active tuberculosis, it is crucial to implement negative pressure rooms and contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice A, initiating protective environment precautions, is incorrect as this is not the recommended approach for tuberculosis. Choice B, using droplet precautions only, is insufficient as tuberculosis requires additional precautions. Choice C, ensuring a positive pressure environment in the room, is incorrect because negative pressure rooms are necessary to contain airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate measures include implementing negative pressure rooms and contact precautions.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

Similar Questions