Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
• C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

2. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?

• A. Assign an RN to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
• B. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities
• C. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel
• D. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.

3. A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
• C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol for a client with multi-organ failure caused by a ruptured appendix. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the care plan?

• A. Ensure early ambulation
• B. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• C. Maintain strict intake and output
• D. Monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In sepsis with multi-organ failure, monitoring intake and output is critical to assess renal function and fluid balance, as organ failure can cause fluid shifts and decreased kidney function. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, but monitoring intake and output provides real-time insight into the client's status, helping to detect early signs of worsening organ function. Early ambulation and blood glucose monitoring are important aspects of care but are not as crucial as maintaining strict intake and output in this situation.

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