HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement
- B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
- C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.
2. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.
3. A client is recovering from a hip replacement surgery. What is the priority nursing intervention to prevent complications?
- A. Encourage bed rest to prevent strain on the hip
- B. Assist the client with early ambulation
- C. Provide continuous passive motion therapy
- D. Administer pain medication before activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assist the client with early ambulation. Early ambulation is a key intervention to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and promote circulation after hip replacement surgery. It also helps with overall recovery and reduces the risk of complications related to immobility, such as muscle atrophy and pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect as bed rest should be avoided to prevent complications associated with immobility. Choice C, continuous passive motion therapy, is not the priority intervention immediately post-hip replacement surgery. Choice D, administering pain medication before activity, is important but not the priority intervention to prevent complications in this case.
4. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?
- A. Medicaid
- B. Medicare
- C. COBRA
- D. Private insurance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.
5. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hemoglobin level
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.
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