HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. An elderly male client is admitted to the urology unit with acute renal failure due to a postrenal obstruction. Which question best assists the nurse in obtaining relevant historical data?
- A. Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?
- B. Do you have a history of kidney stones?
- C. How much fluid do you drink daily?
- D. Have you had any previous urinary tract infections?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Have you had any difficulty starting your urinary stream?' This question is the most relevant as difficulty starting urination can indicate an obstruction, which aligns with the client's current condition of postrenal obstruction causing acute renal failure. Choice B is incorrect as a history of kidney stones may not be directly related to the current obstruction. Choice C, asking about daily fluid intake, is not specific to the current issue of postrenal obstruction. Choice D inquires about previous urinary tract infections, which are not directly related to the current acute renal failure caused by postrenal obstruction.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Crackles in the lungs
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention, shortness of breath, and peripheral edema are also common in heart failure but are not as critical as crackles in the lungs because they may indicate fluid overload or right-sided heart failure, which are important to address but not as urgently as managing pulmonary congestion.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 50 ml/hour
- B. 25 ml/hour
- C. 75 ml/hour
- D. 100 ml/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, convert 1 mg to 1,000 mcg (1 mg = 1,000 mcg) and then use the formula D/H x Q, where D is the desired dose, H is the dose on hand, and Q is the quantity of solution. In this case, it would be 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75 ml/hour. Choice A (50 ml/hour), Choice B (25 ml/hour), and Choice D (100 ml/hour) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate of 75 ml/hour.
4. Following insertion of a LeVeen shunt in a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the shunt is effective?
- A. Decreased abdominal girth
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Clear breath sounds
- D. Decreased serum albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased abdominal girth. In a client with cirrhosis of the liver, a LeVeen shunt is used to treat ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. A decrease in abdominal girth indicates that the shunt is effectively draining the ascitic fluid, relieving the client's abdominal distension. Choice B, increased blood pressure, is incorrect as a LeVeen shunt is not expected to impact blood pressure. Choice C, clear breath sounds, is unrelated to the effectiveness of a LeVeen shunt in managing ascites. Choice D, decreased serum albumin, is also not a direct indicator of the shunt's effectiveness in draining ascitic fluid.
5. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?
- A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
- B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
- C. Formation of bone spurs.
- D. Reduction of joint space.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.
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