HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. ‘I will reduce my salt intake to help manage my blood pressure.’
- B. ‘I will start exercising regularly to help control my blood pressure.’
- C. ‘I will avoid drinking alcohol to help manage my blood pressure.’
- D. ‘I will limit my caffeine intake to help control my blood pressure.’
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.
2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. Troponin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.
3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
- D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.
4. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?
- A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
- B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
- C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
- D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
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