Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

2. A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN sedative.
• B. Sit in the chair next to the client.
• C. Escort the client to his room.
• D. Listen to what the client is saying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

3. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?

• A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
• B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
• C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
• D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

4. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra antianxiety medication because, “I’m so stressed out. I just wanted to go sleep.” The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don’t need to be here.
• D. I don’t want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement of not wanting to talk and feeling that nothing matters anymore is indicative of severe depression or a risk for self-harm. This warrants immediate attention and one-on-one observation to ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and C do not express the same level of concerning behavior and do not imply an immediate risk to the client's well-being.

5. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
• B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
• C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
• D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.

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