a mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate interven
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A mental health worker is caring for a client with escalating aggressive behavior. Which action by the mental health worker warrants immediate intervention by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Attempting to physically restrain the client without proper protocol and preparation can escalate the situation. This can lead to increased agitation and aggression in the client, potentially putting both the client and the mental health worker at risk. Remaining at a distance, directing the client to a quiet area, or using a loud voice are all strategies that can be used to de-escalate the situation and ensure safety without resorting to physical intervention. Therefore, the immediate intervention is needed when the mental health worker attempts to physically restrain the client. Option B, remaining at a distance, is a safe practice to ensure personal safety. Option C, directing the client to a quiet area, is a de-escalation technique to create a calmer environment. Option D, using a loud voice, may be necessary to establish boundaries and ensure the client can hear instructions clearly.

2. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, resulting in long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Premature termination of services.' The lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, along with long waiting lists, can lead to premature termination of services for children in need of mental health support. Choice A, 'Children of color and those in poor economic conditions being underserved,' is not directly related to the consequence mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'Increased stress in the family unit,' while a potential consequence, is not explicitly stated in the question as a direct result of the lack of resources. Choice C, 'Markedly increased funding,' is not a consequence but rather a potential solution to address the lack of resources.

3. A client who recently experienced the death of a significant other arrives at the mental health center. The client reports loss of interest in usual activities, expresses a wish to be with the deceased significant other, has been eating very little, and has not slept in several days. Which client statement is most important for the RN to explore at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important client statement for the RN to explore in this scenario is the client not sleeping for several days. The lack of sleep is a critical indicator of possible severe depression or suicidal ideation that requires immediate attention. While expressing a wish to be with the deceased significant other, having a lack of interest in usual activities, and eating very little are concerning, the immediate focus should be on the client's severe sleep disturbance as it can pose an immediate risk to their well-being and safety.

4. What assessment question will provide healthcare providers with information regarding the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asking about the amount of sleep a woman gets each night is crucial in understanding her circadian rhythms and how they may affect her quality of life. Circadian rhythms are the body's internal clock that regulates the sleep-wake cycle. Monitoring sleep patterns can provide insights into how well these rhythms are functioning and impacting daily life. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to circadian rhythms and do not directly assess the effects of these rhythms on quality of life.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

Similar Questions

A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
A client tells the RN that he has an IQ of 400+ and is a genius and an inventor. He also reports that he is married to a female movie star and thinks that his brother wants a sexual relationship with her. What is the priority nursing problem for admission to the psychiatric unit?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?
A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the RN is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client’s plan of care?

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