a client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital which statement by the client indicates that fur
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.

2. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is exhibiting symptoms of mania. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is experiencing symptoms of mania, the most appropriate intervention for the nurse is to limit stimulation and set firm limits on behavior. This approach helps in managing the manic episode by preventing further escalation. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice A) may not be effective during the acute phase of mania, as the client may have difficulty focusing or following group discussions. Providing a calm and structured environment (Choice B) is beneficial, but setting firm limits is crucial to managing the impulsivity and risky behaviors associated with mania. Promoting self-care practices (Choice D) is important, but during a manic episode, setting limits and reducing stimuli take precedence over hygiene practices.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been taking an antidepressant for several months. Which symptom would suggest that the medication is working?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the effectiveness of an antidepressant, improved mood and increased energy are positive indicators that the medication is working. Choice B, increased appetite and weight gain, are more commonly associated with side effects of some antidepressants, such as certain tricyclic antidepressants. Choice C, decreased anxiety and agitation, could be related to the therapeutic effects of antidepressants in treating anxiety disorders but may not specifically indicate the efficacy of the medication for depression. Choice D, enhanced sleep patterns and vivid dreams, while changes in sleep patterns can be influenced by antidepressants, they are not the primary indicators of antidepressant efficacy. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it directly reflects the desired outcomes of antidepressant therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client's response to a new antianxiety medication. Which client statement indicates a positive response to the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I feel more relaxed and less anxious.” A positive response to antianxiety medication is characterized by reduced anxiety and increased relaxation. Choice B, which mentions sleeping less and feeling more energetic, suggests potential side effects rather than a positive response to the medication. Choice C indicates no change in anxiety levels, which is not indicative of a positive response. Choice D, mentioning difficulty concentrating, is also a sign of a negative response to antianxiety medication as it may suggest cognitive impairment.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

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