Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged home after an extended stay in a psychiatric hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching about medication management is needed?

• A. “I will take my medication only when I feel like it.”
• B. “I need to follow up with my psychiatrist regularly.”
• C. “I will notify my healthcare provider if I experience side effects.”
• D. “I should avoid alcohol while on my medication.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. This statement indicates a lack of understanding about medication management for schizophrenia. Medications for schizophrenia should be taken consistently as prescribed for optimal effectiveness, regardless of how the client feels. Choice B is a correct statement as regular follow-up with a psychiatrist is important for monitoring progress and adjusting treatment. Choice C demonstrates good awareness of potential side effects and the need for communication with healthcare providers. Choice D reflects appropriate knowledge as alcohol can interact with medications and may reduce their effectiveness.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

4. A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee’s history is most related to the reaction that occurred?

• A. Is worried about losing his job to a woman.
• B. Tortured animals as a child.
• C. Was physically abused by his mother.
• D. Hates to be touched by anyone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Was physically abused by his mother.' The pushed employee's aggressive reaction can be attributed to his history of physical abuse. Research suggests that individuals who have experienced physical abuse may exhibit heightened aggressive responses due to trauma and learned behavior. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A is a stereotype-based assumption that does not have a direct correlation with the aggressive behavior observed; B, torturing animals, is concerning behavior but not directly linked to the aggressive response in this scenario; D, hating to be touched, is not the most relevant factor considering the situation described.

5. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

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