Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?

• A. Have you lost interest in activities you used to enjoy?
• B. Has your ability to think or concentrate decreased?
• C. How many consecutive hours do you sleep at night?
• D. Do you hear sounds or voices that others do not hear?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inquiring about hallucinations is crucial for assessing the return of psychotic symptoms due to discontinuation of antipsychotic medication. Hearing sounds or voices that others do not hear can indicate the presence of auditory hallucinations, a common symptom in schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to assess in clients with schizophrenia, but in this scenario, the priority is to determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations, which can be a sign of worsening psychotic symptoms.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. The RN is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the client discontinued antipsychotic medication for several days. Which medication should also be discontinued?

• A. Lithium (Lithotabs).
• B. Benztropine (Cogentin).
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax).
• D. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Benztropine (Cogentin). Benztropine is commonly prescribed to manage side effects of antipsychotic medications. Therefore, if the antipsychotic medication is discontinued, there would be no need for Benztropine. Lithium is a mood stabilizer used in bipolar disorder, not directly related to antipsychotic use. Alprazolam is an anxiolytic, and Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative, neither of which is typically associated with antipsychotic medication use.

4. A female client engages in repeated checks of door and window locks, a behavior that prevents her from arriving on time and interferes with her ability to function effectively. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the client why she checks the locks.
• B. Discuss checking the time frequently.
• C. Determine the type and size of the locks.
• D. Plan a list of activities to be carried out daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Planning a list of daily activities can help the client manage her time better and reduce the impact of her compulsive behaviors. This structured approach can assist the client in organizing her day, potentially reducing the need for excessive lock checking. Option A is incorrect because simply asking why the client checks the locks may not address the underlying issue effectively. Option B is not relevant to the compulsive behavior of checking locks and does not offer a practical solution. Option C does not directly address the client's compulsive behavior but focuses on the physical attributes of the locks, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
• C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

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