Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is collecting information from a client with chronic pancreatitis who reports persistent gnawing abdominal pain. To help the client manage the pain, which assessment data is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Presence and activity of bowel sounds
• B. Color and consistency of feces
• C. Eating patterns and dietary intake
• D. Level and amount of physical activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic pancreatitis, managing abdominal pain is crucial, and assessing the client's eating patterns and dietary intake is essential. Dietary modifications can help alleviate symptoms and reduce the workload on the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to pain management in chronic pancreatitis. Bowel sounds, fecal characteristics, and physical activity may provide important information in other conditions but are not the priority in this scenario.

2. The nurse is teaching the main principles of hemodialysis to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

• A. My sodium level changes due to the movement from the blood into the dialysate.
• B. Dialysis works by the movement of wastes from higher to lower concentration.
• C. Extra fluid can be pulled from the blood by osmosis.
• D. The dialysate is similar to blood but without any toxins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because dialysis works by the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, which is known as diffusion. The other statements are accurate: A correctly describes the movement of sodium during hemodialysis, C explains the removal of excess fluid by osmosis, and D highlights the purpose of the dialysate in removing toxins from the blood.

3. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
• B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
• C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
• D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Steroids
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Steroids can induce hyperglycemia, complicating diabetes management by raising blood sugar levels. Aspirin is not typically associated with causing complications in diabetic clients. Sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic medications that can lower blood sugar levels and are commonly used in diabetes management, making them beneficial rather than harmful. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications often prescribed to manage hypertension in diabetic clients and do not typically interfere with diabetes treatment plans.

5. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Excessive GFR
• B. Reduced GFR
• C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

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