Nursing Elites

1. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after computerized tomography (CT) with contrast medium. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take as part of routine after-care for this client?

• A. Administering a laxative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest
• D. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After CT scanning with contrast medium, the client does not require special restrictions or interventions. Encouraging fluid intake is important to help flush out the contrast dye and prevent dehydration. Administering a laxative (Choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated after CT with contrast. Maintaining the client on strict bed rest (Choice C) is not necessary unless specified by the healthcare provider. Holding all medications for at least 2 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice after CT with contrast.

2. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

• A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
• D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

3. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate extremities on pillows
• B. Evaluate edema for pitting
• C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
• D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.

4. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Excessive GFR
• B. Reduced GFR
• C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypotension.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypercalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions