Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

2. The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?

• A. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope.
• B. Call the physician.
• C. Use a Doppler ultrasound device.
• D. Inspect the lower left extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.

3. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

4. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
• B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
• C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
• D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.

5. The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?

• A. Sodium 125 mEq/L and potassium 2.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 150 mEq/L and potassium 3.6 mEq/L
• C. Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 148 mEq/L and potassium 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body’s excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.

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