HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub?
- A. Registered nurse who just floated from the surgical unit
- B. Registered nurse who just floated from the dialysis unit
- C. Registered nurse who was assigned the same client yesterday
- D. Licensed practical nurse with 5 years of experience on this floor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of pericarditis, which can occur with chronic kidney disease. Continuity of care is crucial to assess subtle changes in clients' conditions. Therefore, the registered nurse (RN) who previously cared for this client should be assigned again. Float nurses may lack knowledge of the unit and its clients, potentially leading to oversight of critical details. The licensed practical nurse, while experienced, may not possess the advanced assessment skills and education level of an RN to effectively evaluate and manage pericarditis in this client.
2. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
- D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.
3. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Notify social services immediately if suspected elderly abuse is present.
- B. Discuss the need for mental health counseling with the daughter.
- C. Explain to the client the importance of taking better care of herself.
- D. Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.
4. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 167 mL/hr
- B. 200 mL/hr
- C. 83 mL/hr
- D. 111 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.
5. After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. IV fluid infusion.
- B. Pedal pulses.
- C. Nasal cannula oxygen flow rate.
- D. Capillary refill time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing pedal pulses is crucial in this situation as it helps determine the adequacy of perfusion to the lower extremity following a bypass graft. A decrease in blood pressure postoperatively could indicate decreased perfusion, making the assessment of pedal pulses a priority to ensure proper circulation. Checking IV fluid infusion, nasal cannula oxygen flow rate, or capillary refill time are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not provide direct information about perfusion to the affected extremity.
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