Nursing Elites

1. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
• C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
• D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Troponin level
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.

3. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Extremity muscle weakness.
• B. Bilateral eyelid drooping.
• C. Inability to swallow pills.
• D. Evidence of hypoventilation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

5. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

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