HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
- B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
- D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client with severe constipation. Which position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
- B. Left lateral with the right leg flexed
- C. Sims’ position with the right leg flexed
- D. Prone position with the head turned to the side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sims’ position with the right leg flexed is the most appropriate position for administering an enema to a client with severe constipation. This position helps in promoting the flow of the enema solution into the rectum and facilitates the evacuation of stool. Supine position with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema as it does not facilitate the flow of the solution. Left lateral position with the right leg flexed (Choice B) is not the best choice for administering an enema. Prone position with the head turned to the side (Choice D) is also not suitable for administering an enema as it does not assist in the proper administration and retention of the solution.
3. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which can occur due to the body compensating for chronic respiratory acidosis. This condition requires immediate intervention to restore the acid-base balance. Choice A, serum sodium of 135 mEq/L, is within normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, falls within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and is not typically affected by COPD or oxygen therapy. Choice D, serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, though elevated, is not directly related to COPD or oxygen therapy and would require management but is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
- B. Temperature of 101.3°F
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- D. Heart rate of 88 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.
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