a client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago during the nurses initial evening rounds the nurse notices a foul sm
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.

2. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, making potassium intake crucial. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels, leading to an increased risk of dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia in combination with digoxin is primarily associated with dysrhythmias rather than oliguria, irritability, anxiety, or alteration of consciousness.

3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parent of a toddler about appropriate snacks. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sliced bananas. Sliced bananas are a healthy and safe snack option for toddlers as they provide essential nutrients and are easy to chew. Bananas are a good source of potassium and fiber. Choice B, raw celery, may pose a choking hazard for toddlers due to its stringy texture. Choice C, peanut butter, can also be a choking hazard and may not be suitable for all toddlers due to potential allergies. Choice D, marshmallows, are high in sugar and low in nutrients, making them an unhealthy choice for toddler snacks.

4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

5. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

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