Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?

• A. I have a sharp pain in my chest when I take a breath.
• B. I have been coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum.
• C. I have been sweating all day.
• D. I feel hot off and on.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.

2. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

3. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?

• A. 1 medium apple
• B. 3 oz of lean beef
• C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
• D. 1 cup of kale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.

4. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?

• A. Tea
• B. Sodium
• C. Water
• D. Protein

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.

5. After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is

• A. Abdominal x-ray
• B. Auscultation
• C. Flushing tube with saline
• D. Aspiration for gastric contents

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.

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