a client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago during the nurses initial evening rounds the nurse notices a foul sm
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.

4. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

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