the nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy which of these assessments is a priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. The nurse is providing care for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which of these assessments is a priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the priority assessment is checking the tracheostomy site for signs of infection. This is essential to detect early signs of complications such as infection, which can lead to serious issues. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but not as critical as ensuring the tracheostomy site is free from infection. Pain assessment and level of consciousness are also important but secondary to assessing for signs of infection in this scenario.

2. A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.

3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

4. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.

5. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

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