a client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face neck anterior chest and hands the nurses priority should be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. The nurse is teaching an 87-year-old client methods for maintaining regular bowel movements. The nurse would caution the client to AVOID

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laxatives. Laxatives can be harsh on elderly clients, leading to dependence and potential side effects. While fiber supplements (B) and stool softeners (D) are generally safe options to promote regular bowel movements, laxatives should be used cautiously in older adults due to their potential risks. Glycerin suppositories (A) can also be a safe and effective option for managing constipation in the elderly, but laxatives should be avoided unless deemed necessary by a healthcare provider.

3. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

4. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.

5. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

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