Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
• B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
• C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
• D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.

3. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?

• A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
• B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
• C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
• D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a client with viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position helps maximize lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pneumonia affecting the right lung. Choice B is incorrect as excessive elevation can put pressure on the lung, and choices C and D are incorrect as side-lying on the right would not be beneficial for a client with pneumonia in the right lung.

4. A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). As the nurse enters the client's room, the oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute, the client's color is flushed, and his respirations are 8 per minute. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
• B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
• C. Lower the oxygen rate
• D. Take baseline vital signs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, it is crucial to prevent carbon dioxide retention by avoiding high oxygen levels. As the client's oxygen is running at 6 liters per minute and he is showing signs of oxygen toxicity, such as flushed color and low respirations, the nurse's priority should be to lower the oxygen rate. This action helps prevent worsening the client's condition. Obtaining an EKG, placing the client in high Fowler's position, or taking baseline vital signs are important assessments but addressing the potential oxygen toxicity takes precedence in this scenario.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

Similar Questions