HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
- A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
- B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
- C. Initiate intravenous therapy
- D. Administer pain medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
2. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula
- A. Every four to six hours
- B. Continuously
- C. In a bolus
- D. Every hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.
3. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the mother of a 9-month-old infant regarding appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following observations by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. The infant eats the same foods prepared for the rest of the family.
- B. The mother gives the infant finger foods, such as apple slices for a snack.
- C. The infant drinks 2 quarts of whole milk a day.
- D. The infant drinks from a cup with a cover.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants should not consume more than 24 ounces of milk a day as it can lead to iron deficiency anemia and other issues. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate dietary choices for a 9-month-old, as they involve providing the infant with family foods and appropriate finger foods. Choice D is also appropriate as it shows the infant is transitioning to drinking from a cup.
4. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
- A. 1 medium apple
- B. 3 oz of lean beef
- C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
- D. 1 cup of kale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
5. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
- A. Spinach
- B. Dried apricots
- C. Chicken
- D. Lentils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
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