Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A client in a long term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data about the client's pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to

• A. have the client identify coping methods
• B. get the description of the location and intensity of the pain
• C. accept the client's report of pain
• D. determine the client's status of pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'get the description of the location and intensity of the pain.' When a client complains of pain, the initial step in pain assessment is to gather information about the location and intensity of the pain. This helps the nurse understand the nature of the pain and lays the groundwork for further assessment and management. Choice A is incorrect because identifying coping methods comes later in the assessment process. Choice C is incorrect as accepting the client's report of pain is important, but not the first step. Choice D is incorrect as determining the client's pain status also comes after gathering information about the pain.

3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A client with hypertension taking a potassium-wasting diuretic is being educated about nutrition by a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increase consumption of tuna and salmon.
• B. Limit intake of dried fruits.
• C. Avoid cow's milk.
• D. Consume organs and bananas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Consume organs and bananas.' When a client is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic, they are at risk of potassium loss. Consuming foods high in potassium, such as organs and bananas, can help counteract this loss. Choice A is incorrect because tuna and salmon are not particularly high in potassium. Choice B is incorrect because dried fruits are good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as cow's milk is also a good source of potassium, which could be beneficial for a client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic.

5. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
• B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
• C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
• D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

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