a client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face neck anterior chest and hands the nurses priority should be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.

3. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the mother of a 9-month-old infant regarding appropriate dietary choices. Which of the following observations by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants should not consume more than 24 ounces of milk a day as it can lead to iron deficiency anemia and other issues. Choices A and B demonstrate appropriate dietary choices for a 9-month-old, as they involve providing the infant with family foods and appropriate finger foods. Choice D is also appropriate as it shows the infant is transitioning to drinking from a cup.

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