Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?

• A. 1 medium apple
• B. 3 oz of lean beef
• C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
• D. 1 cup of kale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.

3. A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

• A. Auscultation of breath sounds
• B. Measurement of peak expiratory flow
• C. Observation of the client's use of accessory muscles
• D. Assessment of the client's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

5. The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
• B. Administer the tube feeding as scheduled
• C. Irrigate the tube with diet cola soda
• D. Apply intermittent suction to the feeding tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.

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