a client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face neck anterior chest and hands the nurses priority should be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

3. Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immobility in children indeed has physical effects similar to those found in adults. However, it can also significantly impact their development and growth. Choice A is incorrect because immobility does not solely prevent language and fine motor development but affects various aspects. Choice C is incorrect as susceptibility to the effects of immobility may vary between children and adults depending on individual factors. Choice D is incorrect as not all children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.

4. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.

5. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.

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