a client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face neck anterior chest and hands the nurses priority should be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

3. A middle-aged woman talks to the nurse in the healthcare provider's office about uterine fibroids, also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because fibroids that are asymptomatic usually do not require treatment or removal. The statement 'Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out' indicates a need for further education. Choice A correctly states the frequency of fibroids in women and their age group. Choice B accurately describes fibroids as noncancerous slow-growing tumors. Choice C lists common symptoms associated with uterine fibroids.

4. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has acute pancreatitis and a prescription for fat-soluble vitamin supplements. Which of the following supplements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Fat-soluble vitamins essential for patients with pancreatitis include A, D, E, and K, aiding in proper nutrient absorption. Vitamin B1 (Choice B), also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin C (Choice C) is another water-soluble vitamin and not a fat-soluble one. Vitamin B12 (Choice D) is also a water-soluble vitamin and not one of the fat-soluble vitamins crucial for patients with pancreatitis.

5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

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