a client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face neck anterior chest and hands the nurses priority should be
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.

2. A client with a head injury is being monitored for increased intracranial pressure. Which of these findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pupils that are equal and reactive to light are a crucial neurological assessment finding. Changes in pupil size and reactivity can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and are not indicative of increased intracranial pressure. A heart rate of 72 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and a client reporting a headache are common findings and may not necessitate immediate intervention in this context.

3. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

4. The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse knows that the reason for this route is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Deep injection helps to prevent tissue irritation caused by iron, which can be damaging to tissues. Option A is incorrect because deep injection does not primarily aim to enhance absorption, but rather to prevent tissue irritation. Option B is incorrect as the route of administration does not determine whether the entire dose is given. Option C is incorrect because the even distribution of the drug is not the main purpose of deep injection in this context.

5. A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in a client with heart failure, the nurse should expect to find improved respiratory status and increased urinary output. Digoxin helps improve cardiac output and reduces fluid accumulation, leading to improved breathing and increased urinary output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diaphoresis with decreased urinary output, increased heart rate with increased respirations, and decreased chest pain with decreased blood pressure are not indicative of the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure management.

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