a client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide lasix which potassium level would cause the nurse reviewing th
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

2. A client recovering from a urologic procedure is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Overflow incontinence.' The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This obstruction can lead to overflow incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Severe pain is not typically associated with an obstruction of urine flow. Hypotension is unrelated to this issue. Blood-tinged urine is not a direct indication of an obstruction of urine flow but may indicate other conditions like trauma or infection.

3. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

4. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

5. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower leg is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following assessments is the most important for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important assessment for a client with DVT on heparin therapy is to monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Assessing for bleeding is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. Measuring the circumference of the leg may be relevant for assessing for edema but is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and respiratory status are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client is on heparin therapy for DVT.

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