Nursing Elites

1. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Histamine blocker
• C. Bronchodilator
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.

2. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?

• A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
• B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.

3. What is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia that the nurse should teach the diabetic client to recognize?

• A. Nervousness
• B. Anorexia
• C. Kussmaul's respirations
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nervousness is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia. It is often accompanied by other signs such as weakness, perspiration, confusion, and palpitations. Anorexia (lack of appetite) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Kussmaul's respirations are a deep and labored breathing pattern seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia due to the release of catecholamines in response to low blood sugar.

4. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

5. A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon’s office? Select all that apply.

• A. Hematocrit 30%
• B. Sodium 141 mEq/L
• C. Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL
• D. Platelets 210,000 cells/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hemoglobin level of 8.9 g/dL is below the normal range, indicating anemia. Anemia can affect the body's ability to carry oxygen, impacting surgical outcomes. Hematocrit level is an indirect measure of red blood cells, which also reveals anemia when low. Sodium level of 141 mEq/L and platelet count of 210,000 cells/mm3 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Abnormal sodium levels can lead to various issues, but in this scenario, it is not a concern for surgical readiness. Platelet count is vital for blood clotting, and a count of 210,000 cells/mm3 is considered normal, so it does not need urgent attention.

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