Nursing Elites

1. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

2. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
• B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
• C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
• D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

4. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?

• A. National percentile of weight and height.
• B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
• C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
• D. School grades and extracurricular activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.

5. The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Body mass index of 21
• B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL
• C. WBC count of 10,000/mm3
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.

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