a male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen tylenol overdose after transfer to the mental health unit the client is told he has liver damage
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet Mental Health HESI

1. A male adult is admitted because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. After transfer to the mental health unit, the client is told he has liver damage. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan is to not take any over-the-counter medication. This is crucial because over-the-counter medications can potentially interact with the damaged liver and worsen the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical in the context of liver damage from an acetaminophen overdose. While diet is important for overall health, specifically for liver damage, avoiding over-the-counter medications takes precedence. Calling the crisis hotline for loneliness and avoiding exposure to large crowds are important considerations but are not directly related to the client's liver damage from the acetaminophen overdose.

2. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.

3. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

4. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.

5. A client with depression remains in bed most of the day and declines activities. Which nursing problem has the greatest priority for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Refusal to address nutritional needs.' When a client with depression remains in bed and declines activities, addressing their refusal to address nutritional needs is of utmost priority. Nutritional needs are essential for physical health and overall well-being. Inadequate nutrition can worsen the client's physical health, impact their mood, and hinder the effectiveness of treatment. Option A, 'Loss of interest in diversional activity,' while important, is not as critical as addressing nutritional needs for immediate physical well-being. Option B, 'Social isolation,' is a significant concern but addressing nutritional needs takes precedence due to its direct impact on physical health. Option D, 'Low self-esteem,' is a valid concern but does not take priority over addressing the client's refusal to meet their nutritional needs for immediate health benefits.

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