HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. The healthcare professional is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the antipsychotic medication was discontinued several days ago. Which medication should also be discontinued?
- A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Benztropine (Cogentin)
- C. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia)
- D. Lithium (Lithotabs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an antipsychotic medication is discontinued, medications like Benztropine (Cogentin), which are given to reduce extrapyramidal side effects associated with traditional antipsychotic medications, should also be discontinued. Alprazolam (Xanax) is not directly related to antipsychotic medication use in this context. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative and not typically indicated for bipolar disorder. Lithium (Lithotabs) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder, and its discontinuation should be carefully managed under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent relapse of symptoms.
2. While working with a male client at a community mental health center, the client reports hearing voices that tell him to get a knife from the kitchen and hurt himself. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement?
- A. Prevent the client from going into the kitchen until the hallucination subsides.
- B. Report the behavior to the client’s case worker to inform the family.
- C. Assign a UAP to stay with the client continually.
- D. Document the behavior in the client’s record and notify the HCP.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial intervention for the RN to implement in this scenario is to prevent the client from accessing the kitchen where potential means of self-harm are available until the hallucination subsides. This immediate action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. While reporting the behavior to the client's case worker for further support is important, addressing the immediate risk of harm takes precedence. Assigning a UAP to stay with the client continually is valuable for ongoing monitoring but is secondary to ensuring immediate safety. Documenting the behavior in the client's record and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps in the care process; however, they should follow actions taken to ensure the client's immediate safety.
3. A client with anorexia nervosa has a body mass index (BMI) of 16.5 and has been diagnosed with bradycardia. Which of the following findings should the RN be most concerned about?
- A. Body temperature of 96.8°F.
- B. Heart rate of 52 BPM.
- C. Serum potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L.
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with anorexia nervosa and bradycardia, monitoring for ECG changes is crucial as these changes may indicate potentially life-threatening cardiac complications. While other findings like low body temperature, bradycardia, and serum potassium levels are concerning, ECG changes specifically reflect the impact of bradycardia on the heart's electrical activity and should be the priority for the nurse to assess and address.
4. A young adult female visits the mental health clinic complaining of diarrhea, headache, and muscle aches. She is afebrile, denies chills, and all laboratory findings are within normal limits. During the physical assessment, the client tells the RN that her sister thinks she is neurotic and calls her a hypochondriac. Which response is best for the RN to provide?
- A. Unless your sister has a medical education, ignore her comments.
- B. I can hear that your sister comments are over-whelming you.
- C. Do you think it’s possible that you might be a hypochondriac?
- D. Besides your sister’s comments, what in your life is troubling you?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acknowledging the impact of the sister's comments on the client helps validate the client's feelings and supports therapeutic dialogue.
5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.
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