Nursing Elites

1. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client with pneumonia who has a fever of 101.5°F
• B. Client who underwent knee surgery and needs dressing change
• C. Client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus experiencing abdominal rigidity
• D. Client with diabetes requesting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Abdominal rigidity in a client with a bowel obstruction could indicate peritonitis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention. Volvulus, a twisting of the intestine, can lead to bowel ischemia and necrosis. Clients with pneumonia (choice A) may need assessment and treatment for infection, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as a bowel obstruction. A client who underwent knee surgery (choice B) needing a dressing change can typically wait for assessment compared to a potential surgical emergency. Similarly, a client with diabetes requesting insulin (choice D) may require attention to maintain blood glucose levels, but it is not as urgent as a suspected bowel obstruction with possible peritonitis.

2. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

3. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. The client should be instructed to avoid which over-the-counter medication?

• A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
• B. Cough medicines containing guaifenesin
• C. Histamine blockers
• D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Coumadin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Avoiding NSAIDs helps prevent potentially dangerous interactions with Coumadin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not typically have significant interactions with Coumadin therapy. Therefore, they are not the over-the-counter medications that the client needs to avoid while on Coumadin.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
• B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
• C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
• D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

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