a client with a history of type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemia what is the nurses priority action
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client with a history of type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is the priority action when dealing with a client admitted with hyperglycemia. Checking the blood glucose level helps determine the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further treatment. Administering insulin or fluids or monitoring intake and output are important interventions but should come after assessing the blood glucose level to inform the most appropriate course of action.

2. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.

3. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

4. Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's care plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prasugrel is a platelet inhibitor, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for bleeding, particularly at the catheterization site and in other areas, is the most important assessment following administration of the drug. Checking platelet count and observing urine color are relevant but not as immediate. Reviewing liver function tests is not directly related to the adverse effects of prasugrel.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

Similar Questions

The nurse is preparing an older adult for discharge following cataract extraction. What is the most important instruction?
While palpating the gallbladder of a mildly obese client, what finding does the nurse expect if the gallbladder is inflamed?
A client with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil. What is the most important teaching point?
A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses