HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Supine
- C. Prone
- D. Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is admitted with complaints of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities. What laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report?
- A. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL.
- B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL.
- C. Potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L.
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 25 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia, which commonly occurs in clients with chronic kidney disease and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this finding is crucial to address the anemic condition. Choices A, C, and D are important in the context of chronic kidney disease but do not directly relate to the symptoms of fatigue and swelling in the lower extremities described in the scenario.
3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?
- A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
- B. It helps to improve absorption
- C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
- D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
4. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?
- A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
- B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
- C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
- D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.
5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote oxygenation by improving lung expansion
- C. To encourage use of accessory muscles for breathing
- D. To drain secretions and prevent aspiration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.
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